In Matt. 5:28, the Word states, "But I say to you that whoever looks at a woman to lust for her has already committed adultery with her in his heart."  Do you feel that if a man (or woman) looks at pornography that the woman would have grounds for divorce for sexual immorality?

Sincerely,
Unexposed

Dear Unexposed,

Matt 5:28 is discussing the attitude of lust and that it is the same as committing adultery in your heart.  The actual act of adultery hasn’t happened, but the attitude behind it exists.  If a wife/husband could divorce their spouse for thinking lustful thoughts, then we should also throw everyone angry with others in jail for murder (Matt 5:21-22).
The Bible makes it clear that the act of adultery involves two people becoming one flesh (1 Cor 6:16), and it involves more than just an act of the mind, but an act of the body (1 Cor 6:18).

What do the Scriptures mean when they say that there are neither males nor females in Christ?

Sincerely,
He Said, She Said

Dear He Said, She Said,

The verse you are referring to is Gal 3:28.  Paul is explaining to the Galatians, who had a problem with prejudice, that in Christ, we are all equal.  Jews are not better than Greeks, masters are not better than slaves, and men are not better than women.  Christ is the great equalizer.  In Christ, we are all forgiven of our sins by His grace… there is no room for anyone to boast (Eph 2:8-9).  All the normal prejudices that mankind has must be destroyed when we become new people in Christ.  Baptism washes away our sins and puts us in Christ (Gal. 3:27)… and it should also wash away our old attitudes.

[This question is in regard to our Daily Cup reading series: Day 3 – Matt 3]

Day 3: If John didn't know who Jesus was, why did he say, "I have need to be baptized by You”?  Mary and Elizabeth knew who Jesus really was… right?

Sincerely,
Distant Cousins

Dear Distant Cousins,

If the only account of Jesus’ baptism we had was Matthew 3, we would have every reason to believe that John the Baptist knew Jesus was the Savior before His baptism, but in Jhn 1:32-33, John the Baptist says, “I knew Him not”.  John explains that God had told him to go and preach, preparing the people for the Christ who was to come, and he would know the Christ had come when he saw the Holy Spirit descending on Him (Jhn 1:33).

It is true that Mary and Elizabeth had been told about Jesus’ unique future at His birth (Lk 1:39-43), but that was thirty years ago (Lk 3:23), and we know that by the time Jesus began preaching, Jesus’ family didn’t believe Him to be Lord (Jhn 7:5).

So why would John the Baptist tell Jesus that he needed to be baptized by Him?  John said that he didn’t know Jesus as Savior, but he did know Jesus as a man.  After all, they were related to each other (Lk 1:36).  The most likely reason for John’s request to be baptized by Jesus is that he was so impressed by his cousin’s character and morality that John believed Jesus to be a truly great man.  He was more right than he knew!

[This question is in regard to our Daily Cup reading series: Day 1 - Matt 1]

Following your Weekday Cup: In Matthew 1, the genealogy of Jesus is to Joseph... I’m confused as to why this is not to Mary.

Thanks!!

Sincerely,
Parental Ponderer

Dear Parental Ponderer,

The gospels actually give us two different genealogies for Jesus – one here in Matthew 1 and one in Luke 3.  Matthew starts the genealogy at Abraham, and Luke starts the genealogy all the way back at Adam.  The genealogies really begin to differ once you hit the generation after David.  Matthew traces the history from David’s son Solomon (Matt 1:6), while Luke follows David’s son Nathan (Lk 3:31).  Every Jewish genealogy (both maternal and paternal) is tracked through the males in the family (that is why both Matthew and Luke end the genealogy with Joseph).

Matthew is tracing the legal family tree through Jesus’ foster father, Joseph.  Luke is tracing the maternal side through Jesus’ mother, Mary.  Both Mary and Joseph were of the tribe of Judah and the lineage of David… just slightly different sections of that bloodline.

I have a family member that believes that we are descendants of Hebrews and who we know as Jesus is named Yashua, and God is Yah, but from reading the Bible’s Life Applications, it gives the definition of Jah (which is short for Jehovah).  What do I tell them?  They’re trying to say I’ve been misled by what I have been taught, but I need to know how to combat my faith in what I know about my personal Lord and Savior.

Sincerely,
Prefer To Remain Nameless

Dear Prefer To Remain Nameless,

Jesus’ name is ‘Yeshua’ in Hebrew, and in Greek it is ‘Haysoos’.  In Hebrew, God’s name is ‘Yahweh’, and sometimes it is shortened into ‘Yah’.  There is no contradiction between the Bible and what your family member told you.

The only incorrect statement they made was that christians are descendants of the Hebrews.  Christians are not descendants of the Jewish nation… they are the replacement for the Jewish nation.  Christians are the spiritual Israel (Rom 2:28-29); they have replaced the physical Israel.  Both Jew and Gentile are allowed into the kingdom of Christ – His church (Rom 9:22-24).