I am reading about John the Baptist in Luke 1:15.  In this verse, it explains that the angel of the Lord tells Zacharias that his son, John, will be "filled with the Holy Spirit, even from his mother's womb."

This made me wonder if during this time in history, both Jesus (God's Son) and the Holy Spirit were present upon the earth at the same time, leaving the Lord Father in Heaven alone, or does the idea of "omnipresent" fit in here?

Pardon me if this seems silly to ask, but when reading the Bible, I was lead to believe that in the beginning, God the Father walked upon the earth with Adam and Eve and spoke directly to them, but then, after mankind became so corrupt, He stepped away, and His Son, Jesus, came and walked among men.  Finally, now that we are under the New Testament, the perfect has come, the Bible and the Holy Spirit, which is our comfort in today's world.  So would it be correct to assume that the Scriptures show exceptions, such as in this case?  Thank you for your time.

Sincerely,
Looking For God

Dear Looking For God,

Yes, the idea of omnipresent is probably the answer in this case.  There is no doubt that The Father, The Son, and the Holy Spirit are distinct entities.  A great example of Their distinctness is seen at Jesus’ baptism.  The Father spoke from heaven, the Son came out of the water, and the Holy Spirit descended as a dove (Lk 3:21-22).  However, it is only the Son who took on permanent, finite, human form (Php 2:5-8).  The Father and the Holy Spirit are still completely omnipresent and omnipotent.

In fact, the Holy Spirit’s omnipresent ability is how He could fill John the Baptist with the Holy Spirit while also filling Jesus simultaneously.  He eventually also filled the apostles and many of the first century christians.  The Scriptures do say that the Holy Spirit was sent after Jesus’ ascension (Jhn 16:7).  However, we also know that even though the Holy Spirit is here, He is also in heaven making intercession for us as we pray (Rom 8:26-27).

Everything you said about the Father walking with Adam and Eve, Jesus walking among mankind, and the Holy Spirit being our Comforter is true, but that doesn’t mean that the other two Deity were excluded during those times.  The details of what God can do and where He goes are simply beyond us.  How God can be in all places at all times is a concept that is too much for us to comprehend.

In Revelations 20:6 it talks about a first resurrection.  My question is: who is going to take part in the first resurrection, and has this taken place yet?  Also, is there a time period between the two?

Sincerely,
Reveling in Revelation

Dear Reveling in Revelation,

It is very difficult to give a comprehensive answer to your question in such a brief forum as AskYourPreacher.  To truly understand the depths of what is being discussed in Revelation chapter 20, you would need to have a full study of the book.

With that said, the first resurrection is not a bodily resurrection; it is a resurrection of victory over persecution.  The first resurrection happened at the same time as the thousand years of peace began (Rev 20:5).  The thousand-year-reign (which is not a literal thousand years) began when Christianity defeated Rome and was saved from Roman oppression.  During that reign of peace, the devil no longer has the authority to persecute christians to death like he did in the days of Rome (Rev 20:2).  After the time period of peace, the devil will once again be loosed for a short time to do much harm and severely persecute christians by deceiving the nations (Rev 20:7-8).  Most theologians do not believe that time of severe persecution has begun yet.

I am wanting to know what you think of "Bible Codes".  I have heard some things about them, and they seem to be very good at predicting events.  I can’t help but think that we are not supposed to be doing stuff like the “Bible code” and that we should just read the Bible the way it was written.  What do you think?

Sincerely,
Cracking The Code

Dear Cracking The Code,

Yup, you got it right on the money.  When people try and decipher “secret” codes and hidden messages from the Bible, they are missing the point (as well as creating some ludicrous false prophecies!).  Paul said that the Bible was written, so that all could understand it, not just the intellectuals.  God wrote the Bible to be so straightforward that it almost seems foolishly simple (1 Cor 1:18-19).  Peter said that the Bible isn’t a matter of private interpretation (2 Pet 1:20).  There is no trick or fancy mathematical algorithm needed to decipher God’s Word.  God isn’t trying to confuse us (1 Cor 14:33).  When we read the Bible the way it was written, paying attention to context, and accepting it at face value, we are doing what God intended.  God wrote the Bible, so we might understand His will and have hope (Rom 15:4).

So in Matthew, Mark, and Luke, they talk about the same event from different perspectives.  But why does Matthew 10:10 and Luke 9:3 say to NOT take a staff, and in Mark 6:8 it says to TAKE a staff?

Sincerely,
Staving Off The Problem

Dear Staving Off The Problem,

You are very astute to notice that small detail.  There is, however, no contradiction among these accounts.  In Matt 10:10, Jesus tells them not to take a staff, wallet, two coats… not even to take shoes. No one believes that Jesus was telling them to go barefoot!  In this account of Jesus’ sending the disciples, Matthew is emphasizing that they not bring any extra shoes, staff, coats, etc.  The same is true in the Lk 9:3 account.  In Mk 6:8-9, Mark states the same thing by saying that they should only have one pair of shoes, one coat, and one staff.  In both accounts, Jesus is shown to have instructed His disciples to take little (only one set of clothes, etc.) with them and trust that they would be provided for.

I have heard from different websites that only a few people will be saved.  I know what it says in the Bible about the path being narrow that leads to heaven, but some people say that only a certain amount of people will be saved.  Is this true?  I have forgotten what passage they are talking about, but I think it says something about 144,000 people being saved… or something like that.  Please help me understand this because it scares me to think only very few will make it.  Thanks for your help!

Sincerely,
Rumor Has It

Dear Rumor Has It,

The religion most famous for saying that only 144,000 will go to heaven is the Jehovah Witnesses.  They get this from Rev 14:1-5… however, they use those verses completely out of context.  The Book of Revelation is a highly symbolic book full of figurative speech and metaphors.  It is rarely appropriate to take the language in that book as literal.

The rest of the Scriptures are very clear that anyone can be saved.  Jesus died for the sins of all the world (Jhn 3:16).  If only 144,000 are allowed to be saved, Jesus really didn’t die for everyone’s sins.  Furthermore, Peter said that the promise of salvation was to the Jews, their children, and all the rest of mankind (Acts 2:38-39).  Salvation is available to all who turn to God.