What does "apt to teach" mean in regard to a qualification for an elder?

Sincerely,
Learning About Teaching

Dear Learning About Teaching,

The phrase “apt to teach” is used in 1 Tim 3:2 to describe a qualification for an elder.  That phrase is merely one word in Greek – ‘didaktikos’.  The Greek word ‘didaktikos’ means ‘qualified or able to teach’.  An elder must not only be willing to teach; he must also have proven himself a qualified and capable teacher with a proven ability to convey God’s Word accurately to others.

Since elders are in charge of shepherding a congregation (1 Pet 5:2), a man must be fully proven as a teacher before being appointed.

The Bible says that Jesus said, "No one gets to the Father except through me", which I have been taught means if you don't believe God is the Father and Jesus is His Son, you don't/won't go to heaven.

My question is: does this mean that three quarters of the world's population (non-christians, Jews, Mormons, the Dalai Lama, etc.) who don't believe that Jesus is the Son of God aren't going to heaven?  It doesn't seem to me that the God I believe in would let this happen.

Sincerely,
Sympathy For The Masses

Dear Sympathy For The Masses,

The verse you are referring to is Jhn 14:6.  Here is a great example of a fork in the road for christians.  Will we take the Bible at face value and accept what God says, or will we ignore certain verses in order to mold God into an image that is more suitable for us?  You are absolutely right; there is no mistaking the implications of Jhn 14:6.  All that do not follow Christ will not be saved.  In fact, there are other verses that re-emphasize this message.  Jesus said that the way to salvation was narrow, and the way to destruction was wide (Matt 7:13).  He also says that many people will erroneously claim to have served God and will be turned away on the Judgment Day (Matt 7:22-23).

These verses do exclude large swaths of mankind from heaven.  However, if we believe the Bible to be God’s infallible Word (and we here at AYP do – read “Who Wrote The Bible” to see why we are so convinced), then we must accept that the same loving God who would send His own Son to die for our sins has a very good reason for being so picky about who goes to heaven.  Remember, God doesn’t condemn people to hell; it is our sinful choices that does that (Rom 6:23).  Jehovah offers us salvation through His Son, even though we deserve death (Jhn 3:16).

Is it unbiblical for a girl to baptize someone?  I do not believe there are any examples of it.  I assumed it would at least be okay for a girl to baptize another girl, but I do not believe there are any direct commands or similar examples.  I am not asking in terms of whether it would be acceptable if we were the last two people on the earth – but just in every day circumstances.  Thank you.

Sincerely,
Not All Wet

Dear Not All Wet,

You are right that there are no examples of women baptizing anyone; however, we must also consider that what we know of baptism places zero emphasis upon the one doing the baptizing… all the emphasis is placed upon what happens to the one who is baptized.

Every time that baptism is mentioned in the New Testament, it addresses what happens to the person who is baptized.  All the requirements and blessings of baptism that are mentioned in the New Testament are directed at the one going under the water.  Some examples are:

1. Buried in Christ (Rom 6:4)
2. Required to do it in Jesus’ name (Acts 10:48)
3. Must believe (Mk 16:16)
4. Receive salvation (1 Pet 3:21)
5. Must repent (Acts 2:38)

Although it is true that there is never an example of a female baptizing anyone, we would hesitate on being too dogmatic on the issue.  God seems to make it clear that He cares about the attitude, character, and choices of the one being baptized, not the one doing the baptizing.  Our opinion (emphasis upon opinion) is that if a man is able to do the baptism – he should, but it would be inappropriate to say that a baptism was illegitimate because a woman did it.

I have read where there will be a cross in the sky.  Some people say you are to go into your house and light a bless candle.  I could not find that in the Bible.  I found where it says in Matt 24:29 the three days of darkness.  I also found in Acts 2:21 that everyone that calls upon the name of the Lord shall be saved.  Please shed some holy light.  God Bless.

Sincerely,
Verse Vexed

Dear Verse Vexed,

To be fair, we aren’t exactly sure what you are asking, so we will handle your three concerns (cross in the sky, days of darkness, and calling on the name of the Lord) separately.

There is nothing in the Bible that talks about seeing a cross in the sky.  There is also nothing in the Bible that says you should light a candle for spiritual purposes.  Anything that you have heard along those lines should be totally disregarded as silliness and superstition.

Matt 24:29 mentions the “sun being turned into darkness”, which is a figurative phrase used throughout the Bible to describe “a dark time” or a time of great trial for a nation.  The same language is used to describe the destruction of Babylon (Isa 13:1, Isa 13:10).  In the case of Matthew chapter twenty-four, the tribulation that is being discussed is the fall of Jerusalem.  Jesus was discussing with his disciples how Jerusalem was soon to be destroyed, and not one stone of the temple would be left unturned (Matt 24:1-3).  All of the events that Jesus discussed with them in chapter twenty-four took place in 70 ad.  Titus, a Roman general, encircled Jerusalem and destroyed it.  Well over one million people died in the destruction of Jerusalem.  It truly was a dark time.

Last but not least, Acts 2:19-21 is talking about the change from a Jewish reign to the Christian era.  The same type of figurative language is used.  That type of language describes a tumultuous time when a nation will be destroyed… and another nation shall take its place.  In this case, it is describing how Christianity would take the place of Judaism.  This is not describing some future event because Peter very clearly states that these prophecies were being fulfilled as he spoke (Acts 2:15-17).

None of these verses are dealing with an end-of-days prophecy.  They each spoke of events that have already come to pass.

In  1 John 5:7-8 … what does it mean with water and blood?  Is the water the baptism?  And the blood the sacrifice that Jesus Christ did?

Sincerely,
Elemental Interest

Dear Elemental Interest,

In chapter five, John is addressing the issue of Jesus’ deity.  Those who overcome the world are those who believe that Jesus is the Son of God (1 Jn 5:6).  John says that three things bore witness to Jesus’ deity.

1. He came by water (1 Jn 5:6).  Jesus was baptized, and afterwards, the Holy Spirit descended upon Him like a dove (Matt 3:16).  John the Baptist used this baptism as proof of Jesus’ divinity (Jhn 1:31-34).
2. He came by blood (1 Jn 5:6).  Jesus died a death like no other before or after Him.  It was a horrific and painful death, and yet, He did not cry out (Isa 53:7).  As He died, the sun turned to darkness (Matt 27:45), and the temple veil was torn in half (Mk 15:38).  After a bloody death like that, even the Roman centurion exclaimed Jesus’ deity (Mk 15:39).
3. Lastly, the Spirit bore witness (1 Jn 5:7).  The Holy Spirit brought the truth about the Son of God to all mankind.  The Bible is a record of Jesus.

By those three things, it proves beyond a shadow of a doubt that Jesus is God’s Son.