Today’s Bible reading took me to Obadiah 18. That verse reads, "So that there will be no survivor of the house of Esau, for the Lord has spoken.”  Reading the footnote, I go to Amos 9:12 and Acts 15:17.  Those verses refer to the remnant of Edom (Esau) that is absorbed into the church.  Can you suggest how to reconcile the inconsistency?  If there are no survivors, how do they who don't exist become part of the New Testament church?

Sincerely,
Tracing Trees

Dear Tracing Trees,

Obad 1:18 is dealing with the physical destruction of the nation of Edom, Amos 9:12 is discussing the enfolding of people with Edomite ancestry into the church, and Acts 15:17 doesn’t mention Edom at all – the word used there is just ‘gentile’, a generic term for all non-Jews.
In Obadiah, the prophecy is that Esau’s people, the nation of Edom, would be destroyed by the house of Jacob (Israel).  Historically, Edom’s destruction began with the Chaldean invasion under Nebuchadnezzar and was completed by the Jews in the second century BC.  The Edomites, as a nation, ceased to exist and were forced to accept circumcision and the Jewish religion.  By the time Jesus walked this earth, the Edomites had lost all national identity and had been completely absorbed into other nations and cultures.  However, their bloodline continued even when their nation didn’t.  Ironically, the most famous people of Edomite lineage were the Herods.
On the other hand, Amos 9:12 addresses the spiritual enfolding of the people of Edom into the family of David (Amos 9:11).  How did this happen?  When people with Edom’s bloodline converted to Christianity, they became a part of David’s family because they became followers of Jesus.  Jesus was a descendant of David.

     2 Timothy 3:6 says, "For of this sort are they which creep into houses, and lead captive silly women laden with sins, led away with divers lusts."  What does the word ‘divers’ mean?

Sincerely,
Scuba Steve

Dear Scuba Steve,

‘Divers’ is the old English way of spelling ‘diverse’, and it has nothing to do with aquatic spelunking.  The Greek word in 2 Tim 3:6 literally means ‘of various sorts, a variety’.  Paul is telling Timothy that there is a type of person that leads people astray in a variety of different ways, and they follow a myriad of different lusts.

How do you cast out demons?

Sincerely,
Demon Deterrent

Dear Demon Deterrent,

Evil spirits are real, but they were cast out and their powers greatly reduced by Christ and the apostles.  Demon possession ended not long after the days of Christ.  Jesus made it clear that one of His jobs was to bind the devil and take His strength away by casting out his demons (Matt 12:28-29).  When Jesus’ disciples had come back from their evangelism trips and related to Him that they had cast out many demons, Jesus told them that they were defeating Satan by getting rid of Satan’s demonic minions (Lk 10:17-18).  When Jesus and His disciples cast out demons, they did it permanently (Lk 8:30-33) and bound Satan by their acts.  We no longer have to deal with such overt attacks by the devil because he has been bound by Christ’s sacrifice (Rev. 20:2).  Demon possession no longer exists; the devil must use subtler methods to deceive us now.

     The New Testament reference to ‘being asleep’ before Christ returns means what?  I have a friend who thinks souls are asleep in the grave waiting until His return.

Sincerely,
A Little Tired

Dear A Little Tired,

The term ‘fallen asleep’ used in 1 Thess 4:14-15, as well as other places, means that the person has died.  ‘Fallen asleep’ is a metaphorical saying that even Jesus used.  In Jhn 11:11-13, Jesus said that Lazarus had fallen asleep, and then clarified that meant that Lazarus had died.  Just like we sometimes refer to death as the ‘big sleep’, the people of Jesus’ day used that kind of language to refer to death.  It has nothing to do with their souls literally sleeping in the grave.  When we die, we immediately go to Paradise or torments (Lk 16:22-23), and our soul is separated from our physical body (Jas 2:26).

     My ex-girlfriend broke up with me some time ago.  In a way, I feel it was good because she was very worldly and not too into the things of God.  However, I still love her.  It's almost like I can't stop loving her.  For this reason, I have broken off all communication with her in hopes of losing the strong feelings I have for her.  Am I wrong for doing so?  Is it okay for believers to ignore people or shun them out of our lives?

Sincerely,
Cold Shoulder

Dear Cold Shoulder,

There is a time when it is appropriate to cut ties with someone.  1 Cor 15:33 says, “Bad company corrupts good morals.”  We are also told that believers shouldn’t yoke their lives to unbelievers (2 Cor 6:14).  It takes wisdom when to decide your life is getting too intertwined with someone who is worldly.  God tells us that we should be in the world but not of the world (1 Cor 5:10).  From what you have said, your case seems like a perfect example of the right time to distance yourself from someone.