What are some Scriptures that show the depravity of man and our need for God’s salvation?

Sincerely,
Give Me Book, Chapter, Verse

Dear Give Me Book, Chapter, Verse,

The term “depravity of man” is normally used by those who teach that people are born sinful – there are no Scriptures to show this teaching because it is false (read “Calvin And Sobs” for more details on this teaching, also known as Calvinism).  However, there are lots of verses that show that mankind has chosen to sin and that we need God’s salvation.  Many of them are found in Romans because the book of Romans spends a lot of time dealing with that particular subject.  Here are a few:

• “For all have sinned and fall short of the glory of God.” (Rom 3:23)
• “Therefore, as through one man sin entered into the world, and death through sin; and so death passed unto all men, for that all sinned.” (Rom 5:12)
• “For the wages of sin is death, but the free gift of God is eternal life in Christ Jesus our Lord.” (Rom 6:23)
• “What then? Are we better than they? No, in no wise: for we before laid to the charge both of Jews and Greeks, that they are all under sin; as it is written, ‘There is none righteous, no, not one; there is none that understands, there is none that seeks after God; they have all turned aside; they have all together become unprofitable; there is none that does good, no, not, so much as one.’” (Rom. 3:9-12)
• “For God appointed us not into wrath, but unto the obtaining of salvation through our Lord Jesus Christ.” (1 Thess 5:9)
• “And with many other words he testified, and exhorted them, saying, ‘Save yourselves from this crooked generation.’” (Acts 2:40)

Is their definitive proof that Mary Magdalene and Mary, the sister of Martha and Lazarus, were two different people?  I say they were different people.

Sincerely,
Positive Identification

Dear Positive Identification,

Mary Magdalene received her name from her hometown.  Mary was from the town or area of Magdala – this is an important distinction because we know where Mary, the sister of Martha, was from.  Jhn 11:1 says that Mary (Martha’s sister) was from the town of Bethany.  This clearly shows that they are two different people.

(This question is in reference to “Think Again”)

You answered a question on baptism and twisted some verses all around then never actually got to the saved by grace issue.  The question you answered was whether baptism was necessary for salvation.  The correct answer is: no, it's not.  My question is how do you explain all of Ephesians 2 if we need to be dunked in a tub to go to heaven?  It plainly says we are "saved by grace through faith so no man may boast".

Sincerely,
Unsatisfied

Dear Unsatisfied,

First of all, let’s address the subject of “twisting” verses.  It is much easier to simply say that someone is twisting verses when you don’t like their conclusions than it is to give examples of how they are twisting a verse.  If we are twisting the verses for our own gain, we absolutely want to change.  It is a sin to pervert the Word of God (Gal 1:7-8).  Since you say we twisted multiple verses around, could you please correct us on one of the verses we used?  When Jesus says, “He who believes and is baptized will be saved” (Mk 16:16)… how is baptism not necessary then?

Now, let’s dive into the issue of being saved by grace.  Eph 2:8 says, “For by grace, you have been saved through faith.”  There is no doubt that salvation is a gift from God (‘grace’ means ‘gift’ or ‘unmerited favor’), but do you notice how God puts a condition upon that gift?  The only way to receive grace is through faith.  Faith is a condition of salvation.  God does place conditions upon receiving His grace.  We must have faith to get grace.  Rom 10:17 says faith comes through hearing God’s Word, and Jas 1:22 says that we must hear and do what the Bible says.  So, in order to receive God’s grace, we must live faithfully by His Word.  What does His Word say about baptism?  It says baptism washes away your sins (Acts 22:16) and saves you (1 Pet 3:21).  If we are in error, we look forward to your reply with specific verses clarifying our error.

Why do some religions go by the laws of the Old Testament and others the New?  I can't understand why there is so much confusion.  Could you please tell me what verses they use to back up both views?

Sincerely,
Of Two Minds

Dear Of Two Minds,

The confusion happens because people don’t understand the purpose of the Old Testament.  Since God wrote the Old Law, why would He all of a sudden discard it?  The key to why the Old Testament laws are no longer applicable is to realize that the Old Law was supposed to lead the Jews to Christ (Gal 3:24).  The Old Testament prophesied of Jesus, and it prepared people for Jesus’ coming.  When Jesus came, He didn’t discard the Old Testament – He fulfilled it (Matt 5:17).  Jesus’ life, death, and resurrection are the fulfillment of everything of which the prophets of old spoke (1 Pet 1:10-12, Acts 3:20-21).  Moses said that there would come a day when a Messiah would come… and that when He came, the Jews were to follow Christ instead (Acts 3:22-24).  Jesus fulfilled the Old Testament by being the Messiah and paying the price for mankind’s sins.  The Old Testament was a tutor to lead us to Christ (Gal 3:24), but now that Christ is here, He has fulfilled the law, and we are no longer bound by its laws (Gal 3:25).  The Old Testament still provides many wonderful examples and lessons of morality (1 Cor 10:11), but its specific laws no longer apply.

Why do most christians wear wedding rings?  I heard that ancient pagan Romans were probably responsible for beginning the use of engagement and wedding rings.  Originally, the ring was placed on the third finger of the left hand because of a superstitious belief that a vein from this finger runs directly to the heart.  Although this superstitious idea is no longer believed by most people, wedding rings are still placed on the third finger of the left hand by the majority of wearers.  There is nothing in the Bible saying we should do this.  Why have christians held on to this pagan practice?

Sincerely,
Ringed Out

Dear Ringed Out,

Many people wear jewelry that depicts ancient idolatrous behavior (almost all Native American artwork falls into this category) or practice traditions that have ancient pagan roots… the important thing is how those traditions and jewelry are perceived today.  As Paul said, “We know that an idol is nothing” (1 Cor 8:4).  The wedding ring and the tradition of wearing it on the third finger of the left hand have no intrinsic evil to them; it is only if those traditions are perceived as acts of idol worship that they become sinful.  If people believed you were wearing your wedding ring for pagan Roman purposes (or if it offended your conscience), you would have to stop (1 Cor 8:7-9).  However, most wedding ceremonies today state that the ring is a symbol of unending love – not a symbol of pagan worship.  The wedding ring’s beginnings may or may not be idolatrous… nobody knows definitively where the tradition comes from.  Regardless of its past, in today’s society, wedding rings almost universally represent a pure commitment to matrimony.